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Ophthalmology

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Question 1 [1 mark]

A 24-year-old woman attends her GP surgery with a 24-hour history of a painful, watering right eye. She is photophobic and says her vision is blurred. She wears monthly soft contact lenses and often sleeps in them. She has no systemic symptoms. On examination, visual acuity is 6/18 in the right eye (6/6 on the left). The eye shows ciliary injection, and there is a small white opacity on the cornea. There is no rash and no discharge.

What is the most appropriate next step?

Demo · PLAB 1

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